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Posted: 8/7/2001 1:25:07 PM EDT
I just read http://old.ar15.com/legal/preORpost.asp and it says that any colt ar-15 or duplicates are assult weapons if that is so why is it possible to buy ar15's made after 1994?
Link Posted: 8/7/2001 1:42:26 PM EDT
Because technically any rifle made after 1994 is not an AR-15. Most manufacturers have model designations other than AR-15, such as the Olympic PCR-15, etc. While post bans look markedly similar to the evil preban AR-15, they are in fact a different rifle. A true duplicate of an AR-15 would have a bayonet lug, flash hider, or other evil feature. Since post bans do not have these things, they are not duplicates of AR-15's and hence they are legal.
Link Posted: 8/8/2001 5:13:30 AM EDT
Link Posted: 8/8/2001 9:01:35 AM EDT
The only "AR15" rifles made after 9/13/94 are LE/Gov't Only rifles in semiautomatic assault weapon (SAW) configuration that the average citizen can't legally own. Any semiautomatic rifles that meet the criteria of a SAW that were legally owned prior to 9/13/94 can be legally possessed and transferred. See [url]http://www.impactsites2000.com/site3/94bill.htm[/url] for a more complete explanation.
Link Posted: 8/8/2001 9:26:52 PM EDT
Glennva has it right:
Originally Posted By Glennva: A true duplicate of an AR-15 would have a bayonet lug, flash hider, or other evil feature. Since post bans do not have these things, they are not duplicates of AR-15's and hence they are legal.
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RK
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