Posted: 1/23/2010 7:50:45 AM EDT
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Serious questions demanding serious answers......
#1. Why is there a small strip of Oklahoma above Texas? Why does it belong to Ok and not Texas? #2. Same idea, but this time with Alabama. Why doesn't Alabama's eastern border go straight South to the Gulf of Mexico? 
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During its early history, the area contained no permanent settlements. With the arrival of horses from Spain in the 16th century, nomadic Indian tribes were able to increase their use of the area for hunting, and for traveling from summer to winter quarters.
The non-Native American history of the panhandle traces its origins being part of the Spanish New Spain empire. The Transcontinental Treaty (Adams-OnÃs Treaty) of 1819 between Spain and the United States set the western boundary of this portion of the Louisiana Purchase at the 100th meridian. With Mexican independence in 1821, these lands became part of Mexico. With the formation of the Texas Republic, they became part of Texas. When Texas joined the U.S. in 1846, the strip became part of the United States. The Cimarron Cut-Off for the Santa Fe Trail passed through the area soon after the trade route was established in 1826 between the Spanish in Santa Fe and the Americans in St. Louis. Travel along the route increased considerably after 1849 with the discovery of gold in California. The Cutoff passed through what is now Boise City, Oklahoma and on to Clayton, New Mexico before continuing toward Santa Fe. When Texas sought to enter the Union in 1845 as a slave state, federal law in the United States based on the Missouri Compromise prohibited slavery North of 36°30' parallel north. Under the Compromise of 1850, Texas surrendered its lands north of 36°30' latitude. The 170-mile strip of land was thus left with no formal territorial ownership. It was officially called the "Public Land Strip" and was more commonly referred to as "No Man's Land." The Compromise of 1850 also established the eastern boundary of New Mexico Territory at the 103rd meridian, thus setting the western boundary of the strip. The Kansas-Nebraska Act of 1854 set the southern border of Kansas Territory as the 37th parallel. This became the northern boundary of No Man's Land. When Kansas joined the Union in 1861, the western part of Kansas Territory was assigned to Colorado Territory, but did not change the boundary. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Oklahoma_Panhandle |
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Quoted:
Serious questions demanding serious answers...... #1. Why is there a small strip of Oklahoma above Texas? Why does it belong to Ok and not Texas? #2. Same idea, but this time with Alabama. Why doesn't Alabama's eastern border go straight South to the Gulf of Mexico? http://img651.imageshack.us/img651/4382/usmap.gif Cause Texas is stupid, and couldn't close the deal, so OK, got to keep their worthless panhandle. Same story with Alabama. 
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The residents of Colorado and Kansas demanded sometype of buffer zone between themselves and Texas. They were aware of the tendency of Texans to stack the bullshit tall and deep and they were concerned that if some of the stacks were to tip over, the Texas bullshit could splatter into their own states. Luckily, since Oklahoma was already afflicted with a long border with Texas, President Ulysses S Grant ordered Oklahoma extended to create the panhandle.
Unfortunately, Colorado later invented something called the "nonresident elk tag" and the unwanted Texas influence happened anyway. Kansas has remained largely (and happily) free of Texas influence. |
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IIRC, the Florida Panhandle, when under Spanish rule, originally extended all the way to French Louisiana. The part that now belongs to both Mississippi and Alabama had a brief existence as West Florida, and its flag was an early version of the Bonnie Blue Flag.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/West_Florida |
