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Then Jesus is not God. God will not arrive through a vessel of sin.

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Methinks you are confused about the difference between original sin and sin itself.

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Adam and Eve were created in the image of God, and God is sinless. So was Adam.
Until he ate from the tree he was commanded not to eat from, then he brought sin into the world and for all those who desended from Adam which is everyone.
Adam died spiritually, and since we all decended from Adam we have a sin nature. Which is why we sin, sins we commit are the result of what happened in the Garden.
Which is why Jesus said "You must be Born Again" John chap 3
And Mary desended from Adam and Eve and has the same sin nature as you and I.

What am I confused about? Sin is sin. And Mary may not have been an adulterer, thief, etc. but she still needed a savior and said it herself.
Luke 1:46-48
46 And Mary said, My soul doth magnify the Lord,

47 And my spirit hath rejoiced in God my Saviour.

48 For he hath regarded the low estate of his handmaiden: for, behold, from henceforth all generations shall call me blessed.

What's do you say about the difference between original and just another sin?

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Guys please tell me what "original sin" is? Up till now I always thought it when Adam and Eve ate from the tree of knowledge of good and evil. Is it not?

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You know - even the most rudimentary search would have given you the answers you seek, but you are apparently not really interested in knowing the difference and instead cling to what you believe.

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You know - even the most rudimentary search would have given you the answers you seek, but you are apparently not really interested in knowing the difference and instead cling to what you believe.

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I truly wonder if he even read anything we have posted? These are all sound, Biblical and theological arguements and explenations. They just don't fit his narrative.

Please! Research what we posted. You might be surprised what you find.

God Bless

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As Bishop Fulton Sheen wrote, "It may be objected: 'Our Lord is enough for me. I have no need of her.' But He needed her, whether we do or not. God, Who made the sun, also made the moon. The moon does not take away from the brilliance of the sun. All its light is reflected from the sun. The Blessed Mother reflects her Divine Son; without Him, she is nothing. With Him, she is the Mother of Men."

https://www.fisheaters.com/mary.html

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I have no need of Mary either, she did not save me, Jesus did.
Jesus died on the Cross for my sin and I put my faith in Jesus and the blood He shed at Calvary.

Why would Jesus need Mary? Jesus was around long before she was created.

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This is like sitting in on an reenactment of the First Nicene Council.

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Mary was born free of original sin.  The claim is not made that she lived a life without any sin.  Only Jesus has done that.

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Does it say in the Bible that Mary was born free of the original sin?

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Related to the subject, I watched a video today about Muslims going to Mass on the Feast of the Assumption.  Supposedly, some even pray the Rosary.  If true, I wonder how they reconcile, "Holy Mary, Mother of God."

Interesting take from Archbishop Sheen.

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I've never heard of Muslims praying the Rosary.

Shias will often pray with a rosary-like string of beds, but it's different prayers.

I've always found the Koran's Sura on Mary fascinating, but difficult to understand. Alas, we've chased away all the Muslims who ever posted here.

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Mary the mother of Jesus was described by God as “highly favored” (Luke 1:28). The phrase “highly favored” comes from a single Greek word, which essentially means “much grace.” Mary received God’s grace. uh, no...try [url=http://www.catholic.org/news/hf/faith/story.php?id=50095]THIS EXPLANATION OF THE GREEK if you dare read it.[/url]

Grace is “unmerited favor,” meaning something we receive despite the fact that we do not deserve it. Mary needed grace from God just as the rest of us do. Mary herself understood this fact, as she declared in Luke 1:47, “. . . and my spirit rejoices in God my Savior. . .”

Mary recognized that she needed the Savior. The Bible never says that Mary was anyone but an ordinary human whom God chose to use in an extraordinary way. No, it says quite the opposite. Yes, Mary was a righteous woman and favored (graced) by God (Luke 1:27-28). At the same time, Mary was a sinful human being who needed Jesus Christ as her Savior, just like everyone else (Ecclesiastes 7:20; Romans 3:23; 6:23; 1 John 1:8). You clearly have read nothing posted in this thread thus far.

Mary did not have an “immaculate conception.” The Bible doesn’t suggest Mary’s birth was anything but a normal human birth. Mary was a virgin when she gave birth to Jesus (Luke 1:34-38), but the idea of the perpetual virginity of Mary is unbiblical. So the prophecy of Isaiah is yet to be fulfilled. Matthew 1:25, speaking of Joseph, declares, “But he had no union with her until she gave birth to a son. And he gave Him the name Jesus.” Until does not mean what you think it means.

The word “until” clearly indicates that Joseph and Mary did have sexual union after Jesus was born. No, it doesn't. Joseph and Mary had several children together after Jesus was born . Jesus had four half-brothers: James, Joseph, Simon, and Judas (Matthew 13:55). Jesus also had half-sisters, although they are not named or numbered (Matthew 13:55-56). God blessed and graced Mary by giving her several children, which in that culture was the clearest indication of God’s blessing on a woman. Cousins, all

One time when Jesus was speaking, a woman in the crowd proclaimed, “Blessed is the womb that bore You and the breasts at which You nursed” (Luke 11:27). There was never a better opportunity for Jesus to declare that Mary was indeed worthy of praise and adoration. What was Jesus’ response? “On the contrary, blessed are those who hear the word of God and observe it” (Luke 11:28). To Jesus, obedience to God’s Word was more important than being the woman who gave birth to the Savior. That implies nothing about Mary. By your contention then John6:55 means that transubstantiation is a completely biblical concept because there was never a better opportunity for Jesus to explain that his 'flesh is NOT real food' etc.

Nowhere in Scripture does Jesus, or anyone else, direct any praise, glory, or adoration towards Mary. Except as he died on the cross. Elizabeth, Mary’s relative, praised Mary in Luke 1:42-44, but her praise is based on the blessing of giving birth to the Messiah. It was not based on any inherent glory in Mary.

Mary was present at the cross when Jesus died (John 19:25). Mary was also with the apostles on the day of Pentecost (Acts 1:14). However, Mary is never mentioned again after Acts chapter 1. The apostles did not give Mary a prominent role. Theotokos anyone? Mary’s death is not recorded in the Bible. Nothing is said about Mary ascending to heaven or having an exalted role there. As the earthly mother of Jesus, Mary should be respected, but she is not worthy of our worship or adoration.

The Bible nowhere indicates that Mary can hear our prayers or that she can mediate for us with God. Sure it does. If not cancel all intercessory prayer at your Church. Ask NO ONE to pray for you because ...Jesus is our only advocate and mediator in heaven (1 Timothy 2:5). If offered worship, adoration, or prayers, Mary would say the same as the angels: “Worship God!” (see Revelation 19:10; 22:9.) Mary herself sets the example for us, directing her worship, adoration, and praise to God alone: “My soul glorifies the Lord and my spirit rejoices in God my Savior, for He has been mindful of the humble state of His servant. From now on all generations will call me blessed, for the Mighty One has done great things for me — holy is His name” (Luke 1:46-49).

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Of what you believe about the preeminence of the Bible is true and so important why doesn't Christ make one mention of it in the Gospels? Why didn't He dictate or present some book while He was alive, a la Muhammad or Joseph Smith? What he does, though, is found a Church - a Church whose teachings you dismiss based on your interpretation of a collection of scriptures that same Church wrote and preserved, one that there is zero evidence as used in the manner you insist it be used today. It's as if if the teaching authority and spiritual integrity of early Church leaders lasted just long enough to get the book done, then *poof* it was gone.

You know what's "Un-Biblical? The nearly pagan idolatry of it within some Christian sects, combined with the rejection of Church authority to explain it in context.

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Thd reason we reject your church and many others like it, is becuase many of its practices and traditions are contradictory to the very words of Christ Himself.

There are churches today that embrace sin, particularly homosexuality, and then call themselves Christians.

We are supposed to detest sin, love our brothers, and pray for them.

Also, we are to correct you.

Jesus was very clear what one must do to be born again, and it doesn't include bowing down to a pope, idolatry, or elevating earthly men to positions just like the pharisses of His day.

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Guys please tell me what "original sin" is? Up till now I always thought it when Adam and Eve ate from the tree of knowledge of good and evil. Is it not?