I am confused over the potential impact of 2 bills currently in congress (same bill really, 1 is in the House and 1 is in the Senate):
These bills would redefine any rifle with a detachable magazine and one other feature (folding/tele stock, threaded barrel, pistol grip, forward grip, or barrel shroud) as an assault weapon. This would classify any post-ban AR or AK clones as banned assault rifles.
These bills would also alter the "Grandfather Clause" - USC Title 18 Section 922(v). Currently, the Grandfather Clause reads:
(1) It shall be unlawful for a person to manufacture, transfer, or possess a semiautomatic assault weapon.
(2) Paragraph (1) shall not apply to the possession or transfer of any semiautomatic assault weapon otherwise lawfully possessed under Federal law on the date of the enactment of this subsection.
HR2038 would change the Grandfather Clause to read as follows:
(1) It shall be unlawful for a person to manufacture, transfer, or possess a semiautomatic assault weapon.
(2)
(A)Paragraph (1) shall not apply to the possession or transfer of any semiautomatic assault weapon otherwise lawfully possessed under Federal law as of September 13, 1994'.
(B) Paragraph (1) shall not apply to any firearm the possession or transfer of which would (but for this subparagraph) be unlawful by reason of this subsection, and which is otherwise lawfully possessed on the date of the enactment of this subparagraph.'.
Here is my question:
Would people be expected to relinquish the post-ban "assault weapons" that they legally owned/purchased AFTER September 13, 1994 but prior to the enactment (should it be passed) of this law?
Didn't California pass a similar law that required people to turn in their "assault rifles"?