Chapter 4.

Common Law.

§ 4‑1.  Common law declared to be in force.

All such parts of the common law as were heretofore in force and use within this State, or so much of the common law as is not destructive of, or repugnant to, or inconsistent with, the freedom and independence of this State and the form of government therein established, and which has not been otherwise provided for in whole or in part, not abrogated, repealed, or become obsolete, are hereby declared to be in full force within this State. (1715, c. 5, ss. 2, 3, P.R.; 1778, c. 133, P.R.; R.C., c. 22; Code, s. 641; Rev., s. 932; C.S., s. 970.)

okay, so what does it mean

Why did they feel the need to put that in Statute? Common Law was going to be in force by the courts anyway, particularly in the absence of any other legislation.

NTM

There is a statute like that in most if not all states; is this a surprise to anyone?

ETA:  Louisiana does not - that is a Civil Law state.

Quoted: Why did they feel the need to put that in Statute? Common Law was going to be in force by the courts anyway, particularly in the absence of any other legislation. NTM

That is I wondered.

Quoted: Quoted: Why did they feel the need to put that in Statute? Common Law was going to be in force by the courts anyway, particularly in the absence of any other legislation. NTM That is I wondered.

The body of Common Law is only the law beucase it was adopted by the state legiuslture rather than writing a long detailed body of law.