Posted: 3/28/2006 3:53:19 PM EDT
[#3]
Quoted: PaDanby, (if we can refrain from personal attacks and name calling) I have question for you. Assuming your opinion regarding the 2ndA is correct and it does not apply to Californians, to whom does it apply and why? If I understand you correctly, you are saying it only applies at the federal level, but in prctical terms, what does that look like exactly?
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Because the Bill of Rights is and was from the beginning a statue of limitations on the Federal Government delineating the Rights of the Citizens and the States with respect to the Federal Government. In other words until a court of the proper jurisdiction, usually the SCOTUS, determines otherwise, any and all the amendments, and the rest of the Constitution apply only to the Federal Government. This limitation applied to ALL the amendments until a relatively short time ago. In the case of gun (and other) laws, this falls under the 10th Amendment. Hence all the states having their own laws on arrest, search and seizure, gun laws, definitions of pornography, eligibility to vote, replacement of Congressmen and Senators, restoration of voting rights for felons, etc. "Incorporation" of an amendment to lower levels of government, is not automatic and takes a court decision. One of the basic legal concepts involved is following precedent, and also, that if a legislature had the opportunity to include things in a law, and didn't specifically include (or exclude) things when including or excluding things, they meant to leave that thing out. A very basic example is a law that says Cities may paint firetrucks any color, preferably red, but not blue. Joe D. Ragman gets hit by a green firetruck. He can't sue the city because "the truck wasn't red" and that the legislature intended the law to say any color but blue and green". Courts rule that since the legislature included "blue" and no other colors it can be legally assumed that had they meant to include green, they would have. Right now the precedent (a very strong legal argument) is that firearms regulation has been "assumed" to be a State right since the beginning of the Republic. Incorporation
One of the greatest changes in the interpretation of the Constitution came with the passage of the 14th Amendment after the conclusion of the Civil War. It was designed to assist newly freed slaves in the transition to freedom and to protect them from acts of the Southern states, and also to overturn the decision in the Dred Scott case that ruled that persons of African descent could not be citizens of the United States even if they were born in the United States. The amendment was successful in this endeavor, legally, if not in reality.
But this sentence had and continues to have long-lasting implications on the application of the Bill of Rights to the states:
No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.
The "Privileges and Immunities Clause" has been interpreted as applying the Bill of Rights, which lists the privileges and immunities of the citizens, to the states. Known as "incorporation," the application of the Bill to the states did not come all at once, nor was it complete. Even today, there are some parts of the Bill which have not been incorporated. The process began unsuccessfully in the late 1800's and continued unsuccessfully right up until the 1930's. In 1947, however, in Adamson v. California (332 U.S. 46 [1947]), the Supreme Court began to accept the argument that the 14th Amendment requires the states to follow the protections of the Bill of Rights. Historians both agreed and disagreed with the Court's contention that the framers of the 14th Amendment intended incorporation since its passage ... but historians do not sit on the Court. Their opinions were less important than those of the Justices.
The process of selectively incorporating the clauses of the Bill of Rights probably began in Twining v. New Jersey (268 U.S. 652 [1925]) which contemplated the incorporation of some of the aspects of the 8th Amendment - not because they were a part of the Bill of Rights but because they seemed to be fundamental to the concept of due process. This process of incorporating parts of the Bill of Rights because of their connection to due process began to run in parallel with the selective incorporation doctrine, where parts of the Bill of Rights were ruled to be enforceable on the states by virtue of the 14th Amendments, whether or not due process applied.
Thus in the early 1960's, the Establishment Clause, the right to counsel, the rights of free speech, assembly, and petition, and the right against unreasonable searches and seizures were quickly incorporated. Since the early 60's, almost every clause in the Bill of Rights has been incorporated (notable exceptions are the 2nd and 3rd Amendments, the grand jury indictment clause of the 5th Amendment, and the 7th Amendment).How about to make you happy let's assume my "opinion" is wrong and the Second does apply to the states. Why hasn't any individual, group, or any interested party been able to sue in the Federal Courts that the CA or any other state, firearms laws are unconstitutional? Because the overwhelming ongoing interepretation, precedent and doctrine of incorporation argue against it. In answer to your question re the practical Second Amendment. In theory it applies only to Federal laws limiting/infringing on the rights of citizens to keep and bear arms. In other words, there can be no federal law infringing those rights. If you can afford it you can buy it. In practice, this has been eroded (wrongly in my opinion) by a series of rulings based on flawed interpretations usually regarding "Militia" issues. Miller saying citizens are limited to military type weapons . Other Laws saying citizens can't own machine guns. ??? A little contradiction there. SCOTUS has not seen fit to resolve that issue, or whether or not it is an individual or group right. The Assault Weapon Ban was unconstitutional on it's face. Nobody was able to get a case through to get that confirmed. Similar to Free Speech those are currently seen as acceptable limitations, yelling Fire in a Theater, Libel, slander, Obscenity, My opinion is that almost all the laws at the Federal level are unconstitutional, but as we both note, my and your opinions don't mean squat. The 9 men and women in black are the ones whose opinion matters. How about disenfranchising felons from the vote and firearms? I think that they are Constitutional because the laws and precedent, including Common Law existing before the United States was that citizens rights to vote or own arms was always limited after commission of felony level crimes. So in practical terms, the courts have allowed the Congress to make laws infringing on a blanket unlimited "right."
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