Does the chain rule work for trigonometric functions?
df/dt = df/dp * dp/dq * dq/dt
If f(t) = Cos^2(wt) <--- supposed to be cosine-squared (cosine(wt) * cosine(wt))
f(p) = p^2
p(q) = Cos(q)
q(t) = wt
Is this correct?
d/dt [Cos^2(wt)] = 2*Cos(wt) * (-Sin(wt)) * (w)
Now that I have typed this out I am certain it is true and that the chain rule works just fine for trig functions. Please confirm for me, or tell me I stupid but then give the correct answer.
ETA - I just noticed the effective frequency of Cos^2(wt) is double that of Cos(wt).
Looks correct, but it's been 12 years since my last calc class.
Thank you, guys.