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9/22/2017 12:11:25 AM
Posted: 10/6/2005 9:01:17 AM EDT
I'm just trying to further understand this statement. I want to set myself up to argue against libs when it comes to in-state sales and not requiring a background check. They say it makes it legal to sell weapons to criminals, as the buyer wouldnt be checked out. How does this work?

Thanks
Link Posted: 10/6/2005 9:03:18 AM EDT
bunny...pancake......
Link Posted: 10/6/2005 9:06:00 AM EDT
Face-to-face sales?

How are you gonna check anyone's background?

No, you use common sense...don't sell to someone you don't know, or you get a bad vibe from, or whatever. Get their ID and copy it all down, just in case, etc.

Criminals get guns from theft or from buying from stupid (but legal) people. *shrug*
Link Posted: 10/6/2005 9:08:16 AM EDT
I believe it is illegal for felons to own firearms NO MATTER WHAT! Not to mention you are still required to fallow all laws for firearms transfers, just no backround checks.
Link Posted: 10/6/2005 9:11:53 AM EDT
Not to mention it is also illegal to knowingly sell to a person who is not allowed to buy it. Say someone wants to buy your gun face to face. You ask him "are you prohibited under the law from buying or possesing this gun?". If the answer is no, and they aren't an obvious prohibited person, you can make the sale. However, it is still against the law for them to have it if they are prohibited.

The issue the libs have with this is not the law, but how to enforce it.
Link Posted: 10/6/2005 9:13:32 AM EDT
[Last Edit: 10/6/2005 9:14:10 AM EDT by PAEBR332]
The simple and CONSTITUTIONAL answer is that such a transfer involves intrastate commerce, not interstate commerce. Congress only has power to regulate interstate commerce.
Link Posted: 10/6/2005 9:41:25 AM EDT
In many states you don't have to have a NICS check if you hold a CCW.

Indiana was that way until it was discovered that Indiana was only doing a state background check instead of a national/federal background check.

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