As I recall, the Europeans knew about the overland trade route to India and the eastern water route around the tip of Africa, but Old Chris was seeking a western water route to India
When he landed at some Caribbean Island, he thought he was in India; so he called the people "Indians".
Wikipedia says that he planned to land in Japan in route to the East Indies during his first voyage in 1492, but instead he landed at what is now the island of Haiti and Dominican Republic. Never admitting that he had reached a continent previously unknown to Europeans, rather than the East Indies he had set out for, Columbus called the inhabitants of the lands he visited indios (Spanish for "Indians").
Here's my question: When he didn't find any Indian spices and other trade goods, shouldn't he have gotten suspicious that it was not India and, therefore, the people were not Indians?
My second question: Why did the rest of Europe continue to call the newly found folks "Indians" when they eventually knew danged well that the new world inhabitants were not Indians? I can understand Chris calling them Indians initially, but why did the incorrect name stick?
I guess they had to call them something, but seems that a lots of confusion could have been avoided by calling the inhabitants something other than Indians.
Of course, we would now have a bunch of sports teams called something other than Indians . . . and the controversy about what to call them would be about whatever their name was.